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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q204-Q209):

NEW QUESTION # 204
A 29-year-old concert pianist with severe chronic kidney disease presents with a 6-month history of loss of appetite and pruritus. Although the issue of initiating dialysis has been discussed with him and his questions answered, he has declined dialysis thus far. You understand his concerns that it will interfere with his concert tour and recording schedule. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Offer to arrange for him to meet patients in the peritoneal dialysis clinic.
B. Explore employment alternatives that would better accommodate the dialysis schedule.
C. Explain to him you will see him again when he decides to start dialysis.
D. Provide him access to his medical records and full chart.
E. Warn him of the consequences of refusing dialysis.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a competent patient declines dialysis, the next step is to support shared decision-making and explore options that align with their lifestyle. Peritoneal dialysis may allow more flexibility and autonomy compared to hemodialysis, making it more acceptable to patients with demanding schedules.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Nephrology, Chronic Kidney Disease Section:
"Peritoneal dialysis offers the advantage of home-based treatment and flexible scheduling. Patient education and peer support can improve acceptance and adherence to dialysis initiation." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Nephrology:
"The candidate should explore treatment alternatives collaboratively, emphasizing patient autonomy, while addressing misconceptions and lifestyle concerns related to dialysis." Simply warning the patient or withdrawing engagement (Options B and C) may undermine rapport. Access to medical records (D) is a right, but does not actively address treatment planning. Exploring new employment (E) is inappropriate at this stage.

NEW QUESTION # 205
A 24-year-old nulligravid woman presents to the office with an absence of menstruation since discontinuing her oral contraceptives 8 months ago. She previously had a regular menstrual cycle when taking oral contraceptives for the past 10 years but stopped because of headaches, which have only gotten worse since.
She also noticed mild breast discharge for the past several months. Which one of the following examination findings is most likely?

A. Low BMI
B. Presence of severe hirsutism
C. Abnormal visual field testing results
D. Nodular breast irregularities

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has secondary amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and worsening headaches-suggestive of hyperprolactinemia, possibly due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Visual field defects (typically bitemporal hemianopia) can result from optic chiasm compression.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology / Reproductive Health:
"Prolactinomas may cause amenorrhea, galactorrhea, headaches, and visual field defects. Evaluate with serum prolactin and visual field testing." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-2: Pituitary Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize clinical signs of prolactinomas and know when to assess visual fields." Hirsutism (D) suggests androgen excess. Low BMI (B) can cause hypothalamic amenorrhea but wouldn't explain galactorrhea. Nodular breast findings (A) are not related.

NEW QUESTION # 206
A 76-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state. He has a history of chronic kidney disease with a baseline serum creatinine level of 300 µmol/L (49-93) and a history of dilated cardiomyopathy with an ejection fraction of 30%. On assessment, he has no pulse or blood pressure. Cardiac monitor demonstrates a wide complex tachycardia. Which one of the following recently started medications is the most likely cause of this arrhythmia?

A. Diltiazem
B. Metoprolol
C. Spironolactone
D. Clopidogrel
E. Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer: C

Explanation:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia, especially in patients with impaired renal function. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly wide complex tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology and Nephrology, "Hyperkalemia" Section:
"Patients with CKD are at increased risk for hyperkalemia, particularly when taking potassium-sparing medications such as spironolactone. Severe hyperkalemia may cause bradycardia or wide-complex tachyarrhythmias." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-2: Electrolyte Abnormalities):
"Candidates must recognize drug-induced hyperkalemia as a cause of cardiac arrhythmias, especially in patients with renal dysfunction." Hydrochlorothiazide (B) can cause hypokalemia. Metoprolol (C) and diltiazem (E) are rate-controlling agents but do not typically cause wide complex tachycardia. Clopidogrel (D) has no effect on cardiac conduction.

NEW QUESTION # 207
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of functional decline. She reports seeing rodents and little children invading her bedroom. Her partner tells you she has a slow, unsteady gait and tends to fall. On examination, she cannot sustain her attention during cognitive testing. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on brain imaging?

A. Cerebellar atrophy
B. Medio-temporal atrophy
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Bilateral frontal atrophy
E. No structural abnormality

Answer: D

Explanation:
The symptoms - visual hallucinations, attention deficits, gait instability - suggest dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), which may show bilateral frontal or parietal atrophy on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Neurocognitive Disorders:
"DLB presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and attention deficits. Imaging may show frontal or parietal atrophy but is not always specific." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Neurocognitive Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize the characteristic features of DLB and support diagnosis with imaging when appropriate." Cerebellar atrophy (A) is linked to ataxia but not hallucinations. Subdural hematoma (B) causes abrupt decline. Mediotemporal atrophy (D) is typical of Alzheimer's. Option E is incorrect - imaging can support the diagnosis.

NEW QUESTION # 208
A 56-year-old woman presents to your office with a 9-month history of intolerable sweating, palpitations, and periodic anxiety. Her last period was 12 months ago. She continues to have regular Papanicolaou testing with no worrisome pathology. She is otherwise healthy. Which one of the following is the most effective treatment for these symptoms?

A. Evening primrose oil
B. Low-dose clonidine
C. Antidepressant agent
D. Estrogen in combination with progesterone
E. Regular exercise, weight loss and smoking cessation

Answer: D

Explanation:
In postmenopausal women with severe vasomotor symptoms, hormone therapy (estrogen with progesterone in women with an intact uterus) is the most effective treatment. It improves hot flashes, sleep, and mood symptoms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Menopause Management:
"Combination hormone therapy is first-line for moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. Non-hormonal agents may be considered if contraindications exist." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Menopause:
"Candidates must recognize the indication and benefits of hormone therapy for vasomotor symptoms in appropriate patients." Lifestyle changes (A) are supportive but insufficient. Primrose oil (C) lacks robust evidence. SSRIs (D) and clonidine (E) are second-line.

NEW QUESTION # 209
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