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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 2	Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.
Topic 3	Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q12-Q17):

NEW QUESTION # 12
What is a description of a release?

A. All updated service versions that are mandatory for users
B. The repeated building and testing of code leading to deployment
C. The guidelines for collating two or more changes
D. A set of new service features that will benefit users

Answer: D

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, a release is defined as the output of the release management practice that is made available to users.
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"A release is a version of a service or a set of service components that is made available for use. It often includes new or changed features that deliver value to users"(Section 2.2).
* Option A (A set of new service features that will benefit users) aligns with the definition, as a release typically includes new or changed features intended to provide value to users.
* Option B (The repeated building and testing of code) describes a development process (e.g., continuous integration), not the release itself.
* Option C (All updated service versions that are mandatory for users) is incorrect because releases are not always mandatory; ITIL 4 allows for push or pull approaches.
* Option D (Guidelines for collating changes) describes a process or policy, not the release itself.
The correct description of a release is a set of features or components made available for use, making A the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 13
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?

A. The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
B. The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases
C. The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents
D. Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers

Answer: C

Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 14
A retail organization is hiring a new release manager. The vacancy description indicates that successful candidates should have good knowledge of technologies and platforms used by the organization, good knowledge of ITIL and DevOps, and experience in retail. What other skill is important to the release management role?

A. Project planning and coordination
B. Knowledge of service management frameworks
C. Technical expertise
D. Understanding of the organization's business

Answer: A

Explanation:
The release management role in ITIL 4 requires a range of competencies to ensure effective coordination and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"A release manager must have strong project planning and coordination skills to manage the scheduling, communication, and execution of releases, ensuring alignment with organizational goals and minimal disruption"(Section 3.3).
* Option A (Knowledge of service management frameworks) is already covered by the requirement of ITIL knowledge in the vacancy description, so it's not an additional skill.
* Option B (Project planning and coordination) is a critical skill for release managers, as they need to orchestrate complex release activities, manage timelines, and coordinate with stakeholders, which isn't explicitly covered by the listed requirements.
* Option C (Technical expertise) is implied by the requirement for knowledge of technologies and platforms, so it's not an additional skill.
* Option D (Understanding of the organization's business) is important but less specific to release management compared to project planning, and the retail experience requirement already covers business context.
The correct answer is B, as project planning and coordination is a key additional skill for effective release management.

NEW QUESTION # 15
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?

A. Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
B. Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary
C. Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
D. Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration

Answer: C

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
* Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
* Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
* Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.

NEW QUESTION # 16
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?

A. Continuous integration
B. A 'push' approach
C. Continuous delivery
D. A 'pull' approach

Answer: B

Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 17
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